I have read every word of the Scriptures from cover to cover, yet I have never found any prophesy that says “Christ died for our sins” according to the Scriptures, “that he was raised on the third day” according to the Scriptures. Perhaps someone can enlighten me. Maybe I just missed this amazing prophecy about the Christ.
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he is risen? okay , where is he?
“this evil and adulterous generation seeketh a sign? no sign shall be given except…”
we don’t want to hear about the sign, take us to where he is?
peter replied , “too late, he went to heaven like elijah did and now he only appear like a ghost “
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Sorry Paul, you know this phantom prophecy never exists in the “scriptures”.
So waste no more time looking for it “in the scriptures”
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Oh. How disappointing.
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…. a question though, if Paul was addressing Jews and he’s saying this, what scripture was he referring to? if he’s addressing gentiles, might he just be lying?
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perhaps Ken can point us to the prophesy about Christ.
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Yes, the Messiah will be cut off (killed) – Daniel 9:26
Same idea / concept as in Isaiah 53:8 – the suffering servant will be cut off from the land of the living (killed).
Proves the Messiah.
All of Isaiah 53
Psalm 22
Resurrection:
Psalm 16
Psalm 110:1 – the ascension to heaven and session (sit at My right hand), which includes the resurrection from the dead.
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Ken
a list of references without their actual content proves nothing at all.
Having examined each one I do not read:
“Christ died for our sins” and “that he was raised on the third day”.
Odd. What could be the reason?
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i don’t even know what the hell bannister is so happy about.
what does he mean “risen”
that gods brain waves in his brain reactivated?
or that god took control of his body from satan/death?
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“Same idea / concept as in Isaiah 53:8 – the suffering servant will be cut off from the land of the living (killed).”
all INTERPRETATION
look at how jews see it
For he had been removed from the land of the living, an affliction upon (THEM) that was my people’s sin.
who is “them” ? 3 persons in trinity?
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He was cut off out of the land of the living
For the transgression of my people, to whom the stroke was due?
Isaiah 53:8
= Messiah died for our sins
Surely our griefs He Himself bore,
And our sorrows He carried; (Isaiah 53:4)
[ He died for our sins]
Yet we ourselves esteemed Him stricken,
Smitten of God, and afflicted.
( the Jews wrongly considered God was punishing him for his own sins)
But He was sinless.)
5 But He was pierced through for our transgressions,
He was crushed for our iniquities;
( He died for our sins)
The chastening for our well-being fell upon Him,
And by His scourging we are healed.
Isaiah 53:5
6 All of us like sheep have gone astray,
Each of us has turned to his own way;
But the Lord has caused the iniquity of us all
To fall on Him.
( the Father caused all our iniquities (sins) to encounter Him, because all of us have sinned and wandered away to our own selfish, prideful, rebellious ways)
Isaiah 53:6
He was oppressed and He was afflicted,
Yet He did not open His mouth;
Like a lamb that is led to slaughter,
And like a sheep that is silent before its shearers,
So He did not open His mouth.
Isaiah 53:7
Yahya rightly called Him the Lamb of God who takes away the sin of the world. (John 1:29)
He willingly took the suffering and punishment for us.
He was innocent like a lamb, like a sheep.
His grave was assigned with wicked men,
Yet He was with a rich man in His death,
Because He had done no violence,
Nor was there any deceit in His mouth. (Isaiah 53:9)
(Joseph of Arimethea, a rich man, gave Jesus his tomb)
He suffered for our sins, He was innocent.
He did not fight back nor have an attitude of vengeance.
Jesus never lied nor did any deception.
10 But the Lord was pleased
To crush Him, putting Him to grief;
If He would render Himself as a guilt offering,
(The Son voluntarily and willingly rendered Himself as a guilt offering)
(The Father’s justice and wrath against sin was satisfied.)
He will see His offspring, (He will be the first fruit, the first born from the dead, and many will believe in Him and become His followers – “children of God”)
He will prolong His days, (be resurrected, never to die again)
And the good pleasure of the Lord will prosper in His hand.
11 As a result of the anguish of His soul,
He will see it and be satisfied; (He satisfied the wrath of God)
By His knowledge the Righteous One,
My Servant, will justify the many,
As He will bear their iniquities. (Christ died for our sins)
12 Therefore, I will allot Him a portion with the great,
And He will divide the booty with the strong;
Because He poured out Himself to death,
And was numbered with the transgressors;
Yet He Himself bore the sin of many,
And interceded for the transgressors.
= “Christ died for our sins”
Daniel 9:24
24 “Seventy weeks [ Seventy periods of seven years = 490 years] have been decreed for your people and your holy city,
to finish the transgression,
to make an end of sin,
to make atonement for iniquity,
(all 3 descriptions about “Messiah died for our sins”; Messiah mentioned twice in verses 25 and 26.)
to bring in everlasting righteousness,
to seal up vision and prophecy (no more prophesy or Scripture after the NT is finished)
and
to anoint the most holy place.
25 So you are to know and discern that from the issuing of a decree to restore and rebuild Jerusalem
[decree of Artaxerxes, King of Persia for the Jews to rebuild the walls of Jerusalem – 457 BC]
until Messiah the Prince there will be seven weeks (49 years) and sixty-two weeks (49 + 434 = 483 years); it will be built again, with plaza and moat, even in times of distress.
26 Then after the sixty-two weeks (483 – 457 = 26 AD – year of His baptism – time of His anointing = until Messiah the Prince) years later, (cut off = killed, is around 30 AD) the Messiah will be cut off and have nothing, (same concept in Isaiah 53:8, shows the suffering servant is the Messiah, and the Messiah will die for sins.
and the people of the prince who is to come will destroy the city and the sanctuary. (after crucifixion, the temple is destroyed in 70 AD)
And its end will come with a flood; even to the end there will be war; desolations are determined. (Jesus predicted the coming destruction in Matthew 23:36-39; 24:1-3; 24:15 – says “spoken of by the prophet Daniel”)
27 And he will make a firm covenant with the many for one week, but in the middle of the week he will put a stop to sacrifice and grain offering; and on the wing of abominations will come one who makes desolate, even until a complete destruction, one that is decreed, is poured out on the one who makes desolate.”
(destruction of the temple happens 40 years later, in 70 AD)
One week (one period of seven) = seven years – “in the middle of the last seven years – Christ is crucified – from 26 AD to 33 AD
or
the seven year war with Rome – 66 AD to 73 AD – in the middle the temple is destroyed.
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I missed this bit Ken:
“that he was raised on the third day” according to the Scriptures
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will you first admit that Isaiah 53 and Daniel 9 show the Messiah died for sins ?
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well… your own Old Testament scholars tell me that the ‘servant’ of Israel 53 is most likely Israel or Isaiah himself. I notice that the passage does not mentioned a messiah.
Remember this is the claim:
“Christ died for our sins” according to the Scriptures, “that he was raised on the third day” according to the Scriptures.
I missed this bit Ken:
“that he was raised on the third day” according to the Scriptures
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A prophecy that was used by the apostles when they first began proclaiming Christ’s resurrection is found in Psalm 16 (see Psalm 16 quoted in Acts 2:25-28; 13:35-37). The first eight verses of this fascinating psalm are best understood as coming from the lips of Christ as He prayed in the garden of Gethsemane just before His arrest and crucifixion. But then He prays:
“My flesh also shall rest in hope. For You will not leave my soul in hades; neither will you allow your Holy One to see corruption. You will show me the path of life: in thy presence is fullness of joy; at thy right hand there are pleasures for evermore” (Psalm 16:9-11).
These verses speak poetically first of His burial, then His descent in the spirit into Hades, followed by His return into His body resting in the tomb before decay could begin, then His resurrection and ascension into heaven to be seated at the Father’s right hand. This verse, incidentally, contains the first of 21 references in the Bible to His present position at the right hand of God the Father.
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No, the suffering servant is Jesus, as He Himself said in Mark 10:45 and Matthew 20:28 and Daniel 9:24-26 says the Messiah will be cut off – thus connected the exact word Messiah to Isaiah 53.
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I read it. Psalm 16 prophesied of “He was raised”.
“on the 3rd day” is in Hosea 6:2
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when you say “no” are you saying that OT scholars, who know Hebrew and Aramaic, do not mostly conclude from the context that Isaiah 53 concerns the ‘Servant of the Lord’ ie Israel or Isaiah?
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In what is perhaps the oldest book in the Bible, the patriarch Job asks the universal question: “If a man die, shall he live again?” (Job 14:14). A little later, however, his strong faith in a future resurrection returns, and he exclaims: “For I know that my Redeemer lives, and that He shall stand at the latter day upon the earth: And . . . in my flesh shall I see God” (Job 19:25,26).
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Many OT scholars who know Hebrew recognize the pronoun “he” is about one man – the suffering servant, in Isaiah 53. The one man who is the suffering servant is the Messiah. So, it cannot be Israel as a people.
See this book, “Betrayed” by Stan Telchin, a Jew who realized this when he started really studying both OT and NT.
Dr. Michael Brown, Phd. a Messianic Jew, also has written 5 books on “Answering Jewish Objections to Jesus”
There are many other Messianic Jews in history. Simon Greenleaf, another one, a lawyer and expert in forensic witnesses issues. Was professor at Harvard in 1800s.
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Perhaps you didn’t read my last comment.
I missed THIS BIT Ken:
“that he was raised on the third day” according to the Scriptures
your Hosea 6:2 reads in context:
1“Come, let us return to the Lord.
He has torn us to pieces
but he will heal us;
he has injured us
but he will bind up our wounds.
2After two days he will revive us;
on the third day he will restore us,
that we may live in his presence.
3Let us acknowledge the Lord;
let us press on to acknowledge him.
As surely as the sun rises,
he will appear;
he will come to us like the winter rains,
like the spring rains that water the earth.”
So the ‘us’ = Israel not an individual or the messiah. So it is not what Paul refers to obviously.
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The story of Abraham and Isaac (Genesis 22) was thus referred to in Hebrews 11:17,19. “By faith Abraham, when he was tried, offered up Isaac . . . his only unique son. . . . Accounting that God was able to raise him. . . from the dead; from whence also he received him in a figure.” In this passage, the writer is comparing Abraham’s sacrifice of Isaac to the heavenly Father offering His Son, with Isaac’s return comparable in type to Christ’s resurrection.
The Qur’an also mentions this: “we ransomed him with a mighty sacrifice” Surah 37:107
Substitutionary atonement
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Ken I’m still waiting..
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There is a cryptic reference to the resurrection of both the nation of Israel and also her Messiah in Hosea 6:2: “After two days will He revive us: in the third day He will raise us up.”
He will raise “us” up, because He was first raised from the dead on the 3rd day.
the “us” means those that believe in His death and resurrection, the restoration / resurrection of Israel in Ezekiel 37.
Also note Zechariah 12:10: “They shall look upon me whom they have pierced, and they shall mourn for Him, as one mourns for his only son.”
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Even if they were uncertain about the meaning of the Scriptures, however, they had many direct prophecies from Christ Himself. (and they were written down later – “according to the Scriptures” = according to Matthew 16:21; John 2:19; Matthew 17:22,23; 20:17-19; 26:32; parallels in Mark; John 10:17,18; etc.).
Just after Peter made his great confession of the deity of Christ (Matthew 16:16), we read that “from that time forth began Jesus to show unto His disciples, how that He must . . . be killed, and be raised again the third day” (Matthew 16:21; see also John 2:19; Matthew 17:22,23; 20:17-19; 26:32;parallels in Mark; John 10:17,18; etc.).
Although 1 Cor. 15 was written around 55 AD, this indicates that both Matthew and Mark were written before, 45-55 AD.
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Ken this post (and St Paul) are not talking about the NT but the Jewish Scriptures.
Hosea is not referring to any individual person, Jesus or messiah. They (PLURAL) do not die and rise from the dead. You just read into the passage in a forced and strained way your Christian beliefs which are not found in the passage at all.
1“Come, let us return to the Lord.
He has torn us to pieces
but he will heal us;
he has injured us
but he will bind up our wounds.
2After two days he will revive us;
on the third day he will restore us,
that we may live in his presence.
3Let us acknowledge the Lord;
let us press on to acknowledge him.
As surely as the sun rises,
he will appear;
he will come to us like the winter rains,
like the spring rains that water the earth.”
So the ‘us’ = Israel not an individual or the messiah. It is not what Paul is referring to.
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Hosea 6 just does not equate at all with what Paul claims:
“Christ died for our sins” according to the Scriptures, “that he was raised on the third day” according to the Scriptures.
you butcher, twist and distort the Scriptures
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Paul includes both OT and NT.
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LOL
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i have proved to you that this impossible
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“He then began to teach them that the Son of Man must suffer many things and be rejected by the elders, the chief priests and the teachers of the law, and that he must be killed and after three days rise again.
Mark 8:31
They left that place and passed through Galilee. Jesus did not want anyone to know where they were, 31 because he was teaching his disciples. He said to them, “The Son of Man is going to be delivered into the hands of men. They will kill him, and after three days he will rise.”
32 But they did not understand what he meant and were afraid to ask him about it.
Mark 9:30-32
32 They were on their way up to Jerusalem, with Jesus leading the way, and the disciples were astonished, while those who followed were afraid. Again he took the Twelve aside and told them what was going to happen to him. 33 “We are going up to Jerusalem,” he said, “and the Son of Man will be delivered over to the chief priests and the teachers of the law. They will condemn him to death and will hand him over to the Gentiles, 34 who will mock him and spit on him, flog him and kill him. Three days later he will rise.”
Mark 10:32-34
Mark was written 45-55 AD – so Paul could easily be confirming that this NT books was “Scripture”, in 1 Cor. 15.
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but he didn’t did he? Where is your evidence?
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Anyway, Psalm 16, Genesis 22, Job 19:25-26; Isaiah 52:15; book of Jonah, Psalm 110:1 are about “He will be resurrected from the dead” without necessarily having to include the phrase “on the 3rd day”.
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also “on the third day” is in Jonah, as Jesus Himself said in Matthew 12:39-41
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“Anyway”?
Dude where is your evidence that Paul thought Mark was Holy Scripture?
None of those passages mention a messiah dying and rising on the 3rd day. Not one.
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“three days and three nights” – an idiomatic expression of the Jews. same as part of Friday, all of Sat. part of Sunday = same thing. on the third day (Sunday morning)
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did Jonah die? Was he the Messiah?
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Jonah 1:17 has it clearly, which Jesus said in Matthew 12:39-41.
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Jesus said the sign (miracle) of the resurrection will be like the miracle of Jonah. Matthew 12:39-41
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Jonah should have died, so him living is like the miracle of the Messiah’s resurrection from the dead.
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Jonah 1:17 English Standard Version (ESV)
17 And the Lord appointed a great fish to swallow up Jonah. And Jonah was in the belly of the fish three days and three nights.
did Jonah die? No.
Was he the Messiah? No.
Remember:
“Christ died for our sins” according to the Scriptures, “that he was raised on the third day” according to the Scriptures.
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Isa Al Masih عیسی المسیح (Jesus the Messiah) tells us the proper way to understand Jonah as a prophesy about the Messiah.
Matthew 12:39-41
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Isa Al Masih عیسی المسیح ???
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Behold, My servant will prosper,
He will be high and lifted up and greatly exalted.
Isaiah 52:13
high = resurrection
lifted up = ascension into heaven
greatly exalted = seated in glory at the right hand of the Father
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I proved you the translation in the parenthesis 🙂
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provided you
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But it is not a prophesy! No prediction of the future is made. At all.
– it is not about any messiah
– no one died for anyones sins
– Jonah did not rise from the dead on the third day or any other day.
– it is IMPOSSIBLE to read Jonah and come away thinking, oh yes:
“Christ died for our sins” according to the Scriptures, “that he was raised on the third day” according to the Scriptures.
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try and keep to English. I’m not an Arab dear boy.
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then why do you have (Allah) الله at the top of your blog, and you don’t even provide translation or transliteration?
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Boom! ouch ! 🙂
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It is a well recognised Arabic word for God. I don’t pretentiously use it in my comments all the time. Boom ouch back!
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http://outreachjudaism.org/gods-suffering-servant-isaiah-53/
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Walter Brueggemann Ph.D., Isaiah 40 – 66 (Louisville: Kentucky, 1998), p. 143, states:
“There is no doubt that Isaiah 53 is to be understood in the context of the Isaiah tradition. Insofar as the servant is Israel – a common assumption of Jewish interpretation – we see that the theme of humiliation and exaltation serves the Isaiah rendering of Israel, for Israel in this literature is exactly the humiliated (exiled) people who by the powerful intervention of Yahweh is about to become the exalted (restored) people of Zion. Thus the drama is the drama of Israel and more specifically of Jerusalem, the characteristic subject of this poetry. Second, although it is clear that this poetry does not have Jesus in any first instance on its horizon, it is equally clear that the church, from the outset, has found the poetry a poignant and generative way to consider Jesus, wherein humiliation equals crucifixion and exaltation equals resurrection and ascension.”
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Dr. Walter Kaiser, Phd, Professor of Old Testament and Semitic languages at Trinity Evangelical Divinity School in Deerfield, Illinois, and at Gordon Conwell Seminary for many years;
has correctly pointed out that according to the text, “men would reject the Servant’s message (53:1), His person (verse 2), and His mission (verse 3). But His vicarious suffering would effect an atonement between God and man (verses 4-6); and though He would submit to suffering (verse 7), death (verse 8), and burial (verse 9), He would subsequently be raised to life, exalted and richly rewarded (verses 10-12).”
Who could Isaiah’s Servant be? Who else but Jesus Christ ever 1) claimed He was the Messiah (Matt. 26:63-65; John 4:25,26); 2) claimed His blood was poured out for many for the forgiveness of sins (Matt. 26:28, cf. Isa. 53:12); and 3) as He predicted, rose again from the grave (Matt. 17:22,23; Luke 24:45,46, cf. Isa. 53:10,11 to validate His claims?
First, the biblical text itself teaches us the suffering Servant could not be Isaiah or the nation of Israel. The reason for this is found in verse 9 where we are told the Servant “had done no violence, nor was any deceit found in his mouth.” This couldn’t be Isaiah or the nation of Israel. Isaiah himself clearly states, “I am a man of unclean lips, and I live among a people of unclean lips” (Isa. 6:5, NIV, emphasis added).
In another place Isaiah confesses, “Our offenses are many in your sight, and our sins testify against us” (Isa. 59:12, NIV). So the biblical text itself proves neither Isaiah nor Israel fits the description of the suffering Servant who had “done no violence, nor was any deceit found in his mouth” (verse 9).
There is another reason why this passage must be a description of the coming Messiah and cannot be referring to either Isaiah or the nation of Israel. That reason is found in verse 10. There we learn that the suffering Servant gives his life as a “guilt offering,” a “trespass offering.”
According to the Hebrew Scriptures, a trespass offering must be a lamb without blemish; it must be perfect (Lev. 6:6-7). The life that’s given in atonement for others must be a perfect life. Here again, Isaiah the prophet admits neither he nor the nation of Israel qualifies.
Finally, proof that Isaiah is speaking of the coming Messiah and not the nation of Israel is found in Isaiah 53:8 where the text states, “For the transgression of my people he was stricken” (NIV). Who are the “my people” spoken about? This must be Israel. But if the “Servant” is stricken for the transgression of “my people,” then the Servant can’t be Israel. This must be the Messiah who will suffer.
Finally, throughout this passage, the Servant is portrayed as an individual. It speaks of what he has done; how he was despised; how he was rejected, and how the Lord laid on him the iniquity of us all. All of this the Servant did on behalf of “my people.”
Dr. Michael Brown, Phd. also in Hebrew and OT, agrees.
see a whole book, “Answering Jewish Objections to Jesus”, volume 3, Messianic Prophesies.
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”
Isaiah 53:8
= Messiah died for our sins
Surely our griefs He Himself bore,
And our sorrows He carried; (Isaiah 53:4)”
nothing here says that it was SLAUGHTERED BECAUSE of SINS OF EVERYBODY
if people are BEATING him up and persecuting him, then he would be bearing their guilt in metaphorical way, right?
do you honestly think is 53:4 says that the suffering servant PHYSICALLY bore on the ACTION OF RAPE, MURDER….etc?
“[ He died for our sins]
Yet we ourselves esteemed Him stricken,
Smitten of God, and afflicted.”
this is what crosstians say to the muslims. they say you are “cursed” thats why “god is punishing you ”
they used to say that same BS when jews were under their power
they used to say that same bs when they used to persecuted EACH other
notice cursed and smitten does NOT MEAN slaughtered for EVERY BODIES SINS
“( the Jews wrongly considered God was punishing him for his own sins)
But He was sinless.)”
“5 But He was pierced through for our transgressions,
He was crushed for our iniquities;”
there is NO “PIERCED”
the hebrew word does not MEAN “pierced”
there is NO IDEA of making a HOLE through flesh in the verse sighted
it is “wounded”
“( He died for our sins)
The chastening for our well-being fell upon Him,
And by His scourging we are healed.”
so you are either healed through OPEN flesh or you are healed through the slaughter of person
which one is it?
and where does the text say that he was SLAUGHTERED FOR YOUR sins?
“Isaiah 53:5
6 All of us like sheep have gone astray,
Each of us has turned to his own way;
But the Lord has caused the iniquity of us all
To fall on Him.
( the Father caused all our iniquities (sins) to encounter Him, because all of us have sinned and wandered away to our own selfish, prideful, rebellious ways)
Isaiah 53:6”
this is not RITUAL sacrifice. jewish writer wasn’t thinking of making this guy an ANIMAL and placing sins on him or slaughtering him. notice in torah that the IDEA of VICARIOUS suffering IS PRESENT, but VICARIOUS ATONEMENT is NOT PRESENT.
job has NO SIN to his name and he doesn’t even SUFFER for others , yet god still say he PUNISHED him for no reason.
“He was oppressed and He was afflicted,
Yet He did not open His mouth;
Like a lamb that is led to slaughter,
And like a sheep that is silent before its shearers,
So He did not open His mouth.
Isaiah 53:7
Yahya rightly called Him the Lamb of God who takes away the sin of the world. (John 1:29)”
and nobody from yahyas TEAm left yahyas WATER dunking for BLOOD dunking
yahya DUNKED your god and CONTINUED his life doing his business with water and dunking .
“He willingly took the suffering and punishment for us.
He was innocent like a lamb, like a sheep.”
why are you reading LIES into the text?
where does it say SUFFERING servant “willingly” took on sins?
it says god punished him
in other text jews say “we are keeping your laws, why do you still punish us”
His grave was assigned with wicked men,
Yet He was with a rich man in His death,
Because He had done no violence,
Nor was there any deceit in His mouth. (Isaiah 53:9)
(Joseph of Arimethea, a rich man, gave Jesus his tomb)
joseph of arimethea MAKE A “SPECIAL request” to take down jesus LOL indicating he knew that it would be DIFFICULT to go up to p pilate and say give me the body. ehrman thinks your god was probably kept on the cross and wasn’t even buried in a tomb. NO RITUAL sacrifice presented in text
“He suffered for our sins, He was innocent.
He did not fight back nor have an attitude of vengeance.
Jesus never lied nor did any deception.”
NO RITUAL SACRIFICE for the sins of people
you are LYING and making things up
NO RITUAL SACRIFICE
NO RITUAL SACRIFICE
10 But the Lord was pleased
To crush Him, putting Him to grief;
If He would render Himself as a guilt offering,
(The Son voluntarily and willingly rendered Himself as a guilt offering)
(The Father’s justice and wrath against sin was satisfied.)
THE TEXT SAYS NOTHING ABOUT TEMPLE SACRIFICE YOU JOKER
THIS INDICATES THE “lord” WAS PUNISHING his sons GUILT
meaning the suffering servant was himself SINNER
the suffering servant had to ACKNOWLEDGE his own guilt
“He will see His offspring, (He will be the first fruit, the first born from the dead, and many will believe in Him and become His followers – “children of God”)”
so much read into text . why not just interpret it to mean that he would see his biological children?
“He will prolong His days, (be resurrected, never to die again)
And the good pleasure of the Lord will prosper in His hand.”
how LONG did adam LIVE FOR?
“prolong” does not mean “never to die again”
11 As a result of the anguish of His soul,
He will see it and be satisfied; (He satisfied the wrath of God)
By His knowledge the Righteous One,
My Servant, will justify the many,
As He will bear their iniquities. (Christ died for our sins)
12 Therefore, I will allot Him a portion with the great,
And He will divide the booty with the strong;
Because He poured out Himself to death,
And was numbered with the transgressors;
Yet He Himself bore the sin of many,
And interceded for the transgressors.
= “Christ died for our sins”
silly. jesus himself says “my soul is deeply troubled even unto death”
does that mean HE PHYSICALLY died?
“12Therefore, I will allot him a portion in public, and with the strong he shall share plunder, because he poured out his soul to death, and with transgressors he was counted; and he bore the sin of many, and interceded for the transgressors. ”
vicarious SUFFERING , NOT atonement
“poured out his soul to death” does not mean DEATH
“poured out his soul to death” does not MEAN “died for OUR sins”
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“Behold, My servant will prosper,
He will be high and lifted up and greatly exalted.
Isaiah 52:13
high = resurrection
lifted up = ascension into heaven
greatly exalted = seated in glory at the right hand of the Father”
lol christian. you look at english dictionary create english ideas into your head and then think hebrew IDEAS are corresponding to your english thought
lol
this is why it is DANGEROUS to use english dictionary.
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“high” means “resurrection”?
i guess it is not surprising you see human (jesus) as animal (lamb)
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high = resurrection
lifted up = ascension into heaven
greatly exalted = seated in glory at the right hand of the Father”
NOTICE just by depending on isaiah texts you have created a story or picture in your head?
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4Indeed, he bore our illnesses, and our pains-he carried them, yet we accounted him as plagued, smitten by God and oppressed.
5But he was pained because of our transgressions, crushed because of our iniquities; the chastisement of our welfare was upon him, and with his wound we were healed.
6We all went astray like sheep, we have turned, each one on his way, and the Lord accepted his prayers for the iniquity of all of us.
just went back and read thiscarefully
notice it didn’t say that the servant who is PERSECUTED saw himself as vicariously suffering “willingly” for OTHERS OR that he is vicariously SUFFERING leave ALONE VICARIOUS RITUAL TEMPLE STYLE ATONEMENT for sins
jesus, christians and others are TWISTING the text
it is the PERSECUTORS who are seeing this as vicarious suffering
i mean think about it this way
women who get beaten by their husbands for years are bearing their punishment/iniquities, but it isn’t vicarious in any way.
From the toil of his soul he would see, he would be satisfied; with his knowledge My servant would vindicate the just for many, and their iniquities he would bear.
well he is getting persecuted so he is bearing them similar to how wife bears her husbands iniquities.
but it doesn’t seem VICARIOUS in the sense
“hey, let me willingly take on your sins and SUFFER for them”
“punish me all you like”
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and what is BLOODY worse is that we are ALL seeing an english translation
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