O Daniel, where art thou? No longer in the Bible it seems…

the_book_of_daniel

The Book of Daniel is much beloved by Christians for it contains a wondrous prophecy concerning the coming Messiah – or so we are told.  In Christian-Muslim debates over the meaning of the crucial chapter 7 I have always been struck by the complete and utter absence of any awareness of what Old Testament historians have to tell us about this Book’s authorship and date.

So for this article I had a rummage in my library in order to share with you what reputable and authoritative Biblical scholarship has to say about the Book of Daniel. It may shock you.

The Oxford Dictionary of the Christian Church (published by Oxford University Press) under the entry to the Book of Daniel tells us:

‘The traditional belief that the Book was written in the 6th cent. BC by Daniel, one of the Jewish exiles in Babylon, is now almost universally regarded as untenable. A number of historical errors make it next to impossible to believe that it dates from the period of the Exile, and a much later date is borne out also by its doctrinal standpoint, by its position in the canon of Scripture, and by its language (the section 2: 4-7: 18 is written in Aramaic, not Hebrew, and even Greek loan-words occur). The consensus of modern critical opinion is that it was written between 167 and 164 BC. On this hypothesis the purpose of the Book was to encourage the reader during the persecution of the Jews at the hands of Antiochus Epiphanes (175-164 BC).’ (p. 449).

The Jewish Study Bible (Second Edition) published by Oxford University Press tells us the following:

‘The Book of Daniel, probably written in its final version in 164 BCE, is thought to be the latest composition of the Hebrew Bible. Its narrative, however, is set much earlier, during the reigns of the powerful kings of Babylonia, Media, and Persia in the 6th century BCE.’ (p. 1635)

The New Jerome Biblical Commentary by Raymond E. Brown (Editor), and (Editor), Josepth A. Fitzmeyer.  Having discussed the genre of Daniel and concluding it is ‘haggadic’ ie a ‘story having little or no basis in actual history but told for the sake of inculcating a moral lesson’ (p. 408) the Commentary continues, 

Date and Authorship. Having lost sight of these ancient modes of writing, until relatively recent years Jews and Christians considered Daniel to be true history, containing genuine prophecy. Inasmuch as chapters 7-12 are written in the 1st person it was natural to assume that the Daniel in chapters 1-6 was a truly historical character and that he was the author of the whole book. Few modern biblical scholars, however, would now seriously defend such an opinion.  The arguments for a date shortly before the death of Antiochus IV Epiphanes in 164 are overwhelming. An author living in the 6th cent. could hardly have written the late Hebrew used in Daniel, and its Aramaic is certainly later than the Aramaic of the Elephantine papyri, which date from the end of the 5th cent. (p. 408)

The Commentary adduces other unassailable historical facts and concludes that Daniel’s composition date is probably in 165. The Dictionary of the Christian Church has no peer as a one-volume encyclopedia of the Bible and is written by the best scholars in the field. The NJBC is likewise a scholarly classic. I used it with much profit as a theology undergraduate.

***

So when we debate and argue about the meaning of a word or phrase in Daniel 7 (or elsewhere in the Book) it is wise to bear in mind that this is almostly certainly not a prophecy uttered by the Prophet Daniel but a composition by an unknown Jewish scribe pretending to be Daniel. Should it matter?

That is the question… 



Categories: Bible, Biblical scholarship, Christianity, Islam, Judaism

20 replies

  1. Paul,
    Except Jesus Al Masih (Jesus the Christ) said that Daniel the prophet wrote the book of Daniel. Matthew 24:15 (“spoken of by the prophet Daniel”)

    And there are believing scholars who believe Daniel wrote it, in 530 BC.

    The ones you quote are liberal. Raymond Brown and Fitzmeyer were both liberal Roman Catholic scholars.

    Like

  2. Ken you have missed the point. Instead of ad hominem attacks against believing fellow Christians (shame on you) you should consider the historical and linguistic evidence. It is overwhelming.

    Young’s out of date opinions (1972!) are not followed by other Old Testament scholars. You will always find a lone voice going against the rest.

    Like

  3. ‘An author living in the 6th cent. could hardly have written the late Hebrew used in Daniel, and its Aramaic is certainly later than the Aramaic of the Elephantine papyri, which date from the end of the 5th cent.’

    Did you know that ken?

    Like

  4. The Oxford Dictionary of the Christian Church is an impeccable moderate & Christian scholarly resource. It says,

    ‘A number of historical errors make it next to impossible to believe that it dates from the period of the Exile…’

    Are you aware of these errors Ken?

    Like

  5. Older does not necessarily mean worse. Sometimes older works are even better. Look at classical writers, etc. and others like Athanasius, Augustine, Anselm, etc.

    Tremper Longman’s commentary on Daniel is newer, and he deals with the alleged historical errors, as does Gleason Archer in “A Survey of Old Testament Introduction”. (pages 385-411)

    Yes, I am aware of what liberal scholar’s say about some things in Daniel, such as who was Darius the Mede, etc. Young, Archer, and Longman address those issues, and the language issue of the Aramaic and foreign loan words in the text, that you brought up.

    http://www.amazon.com/gp/product/0851511546?ie=UTF8&tag=ligoniminist-20&linkCode=as2&camp=1789&creative=9325&creativeASIN=0851511546

    Like

  6. You are referring to a claim from 1929 by H. H. Rowley about the Aramaic of the 5th Century – the Elephantine papyri – but later G. R. Driver showed his theory wrong (Oxford, 1957) . (Gleason Archer, ibid, page 395)

    All of those alleged issues have good answers in these sources, Archer, Young, Longman; also, Iain Duguid’s commentary.

    Like

  7. these are not ‘liberal’ scholars Ken whatever that intended slur means. I bet you do not know who even wrote the entry on Daniel in the The Oxford Dictionary of the Christian Church do you?

    I bet you have no idea who wrote the article in the NJBC?

    You criticise people who you do not know!

    Like

  8. Ken can you cite a single non evangelical scholar? A scholar who is not already committed to biblical inerrancy prior to investigation?

    Like

  9. I don’t have those works, so tell me who the author’s are.
    But I did use The Oxford Dictionary of the Christian Church in seminary, in the library. But I don’t have that massive and expensive book.

    Like

  10. The commentaries on Daniel interact with liberal and middle of the road scholars.

    I already bought several liberal non-Evangelical works from your suggestion and bugging me.

    Bart Ehrman
    Geza Vermes
    Raymond Brown’s NT Introduction
    James D. G. Dunn ( I have two of his books now).

    And I have Reza Aslan’s book Zealot, and he relies heavily on liberals.

    Like

  11. I also have Richard Bauckham’s “Jesus and the Eyewitnesses”, which is very good.

    Like

  12. Ken can you cite a single non evangelical scholar who supports traditional authorship ? A scholar who is not already committed to biblical inerrancy prior to investigation?

    Like

  13. The ones you want are the ones who apriori presuppose that prophesy or miracles or God speaking to the prophet cannot happen. They are committed to skepticism prior to investigation.

    I don’t have those kind of works that you want, on Daniel.

    Like

  14. Bauckham is New Testament scholar.

    But even though he doesn’t think Peter wrote 2 Peter, he agrees with me that Mark 10 and matthew 19 “why do you call me good, no one is good but God alone” is a double ententre and Jesus claiming to be God in an indirect way – “why do you call me good? Only God is good” Since you recognize Me as good, then I am also God, because only God is prefectly good.

    Bauckham agrees with me and believing Evangelical conservative interpretation of that passage.

    Like

  15. Richard J. Bauckham is a sound NT scholar according to you and I agree. He is a conservative Evangelical by faith. But precisely because he is a good scholar he knows 2 Peter is a forgery and the Book of Daniel was not really written by Daniel.

    You have failed to cite even one non-fundamentalist scholar who backs your view on Daniel.

    Like

  16. Ken Temple

    You said;
    But even though he doesn’t think Peter wrote 2 Peter, he agrees with me that Mark 10 and matthew 19 “why do you call me good, no one is good but God alone” is a double ententre and Jesus claiming to be God in an indirect way – “why do you call me good? Only God is good” Since you recognize Me as good, then I am also God, because only God is prefectly good.

    Bauckham agrees with me and believing Evangelical conservative interpretation of that passage.

    I say;
    If you say ” a liar intellect on bloggingtheology”
    So, If I say “why do you call me a liar?”, only satan and a wicked man is a liar. Does that mean, I am agreeing to be a liar? I agreed to be Satan? I agreed to be a wicked man?

    I do not think I am agreeing with the statement because of the WHY? Why is used to protest something or to explain something and the explanation by Jesus Christ is that “Only God is good”. Jesus will say “Only me alone is good”, “only the Son/son alone is good”, “only Trinitas Unitas is good”, “Only the second person of the Trinity is good”, “only the messiah alone is good” etc. to claim divinity.

    But Jesus said “only God alone” and people understand him(Jesus) to be “Son/son”, “Master” etc. because the person asking the question from Jesus did not say “good God” but he said “good master” and Jesus did not say “why do you call me good master” but Jesus said “why do you call me good” and ignored the master because he(Jesus) is not talking about the master because he(Jesus) has accepted and agreed with the man that he(Jesus) is a master but not God. Jesus is only concern about the good part of the question but not the “master” part of the question which Jesus accepted and ignored through his reply and attributed “good” to only God but not the master in this case Jesus accepted himself to be master but not good.

    Jesus did not contest the “master” that he was called but contested the “good” part he(Jesus) was called and attributed the “good” to only God but not the “master” which Jesus agreed to be and accepted to be.

    So, Jesus admit to be “master” by not contesting it but not “good” which he(Jesus) clearly contested and attributed it to God Only.

    You cannot therefore impose your Trinitarian believe to what Jesus never said.

    Bauckham agreeing with you with regards to Mark and Mathew is based on belief but not research because the above is purely belief to belief what Jesus means but has nothing to do with research but the books of Daniel and Peter is not based on what someone thinks what someone means but based on research and he does not want to put his true research against the truth and say otherwise to support his religion but to tell the truth.

    John Esposito has done a lot of research on Islam and is a Islamic scholar at George Town University and still a Christian but will tell you the truth about his research of Islam and accepts all his research and believes Islam is a monotheistic religion which believes in all prophets that are mentioned in the Bible and is a good religion by sticking to the worship of only one God. He is good in explaining the war passages in the Quran and explaining it is self defence and speak like a Muslims but he is not a Muslim but a Christian.

    So, Jesus does not claim to be God by answering “only God is Good”. Jesus did not say “Only master is good” but Jesus said “only God is good” and Jesus accepted the “master” as he was called by the questioner but rejected the “good” and attributed the “good” to only “God” as every God fearing human being will do by attributing “good” to only God but not himself(human being).

    It is just like Muslims always say “God is great”. You tell a Muslims “You are Great” and a Muslims will reply “why do you call me great” “only Allah is great” . Does that mean the Muslims is God? because you call him or identified him(Muslim) as great? which is one of the attributes of God?

    That claim is therefore rest in perfect peace Mr. Ken. It does not mean Jesus is God.

    Thanks

    Like

Trackbacks

  1. O Isaiah, where art thou? No longer in Isaiah 53 it seems… | Blogging Theology

Leave a reply to Ken Temple Cancel reply